[VIDEO] A question that probably was never answered to my satisfaction. Is the three-fifths compromise in the US Constitution (Article 1, Section 2, Clause 3) referring to slaves and calling them three-fifths of a person? Or are they saying three-fifths of the population of slaves?
Former political science professor Carol Swain attempts to explain in this video from Prager U. Perhaps very close to the previous video about whether or not slavery was the cause of the Civil War. In the case of the video above, it was shown that there was an eventual path to elimination slavery in America.
Think about it, slaves didn't have many rights - especially voting rights - so why should census takers count them all and allow the south to get the representation to maintain slavery. If the northern states wanted to eliminate slavery and the south had little issue continuing it or even expanding it then we see how this compromise insured that this inhuman system wouldn't last beyond the unfortunate Civil War of the 1860s.
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